MPTH #2 (ARY) Adnan, Hira Mani, Humayun, Ayeza by Khalil ur Rahman - Page 71

Originally posted by: heavenlybliss

the reconciliation time is 3 months but if in that time they dont patch up and iddat is complete then they cant get back together until halala

This ruling was issued because men used to divorce their wives over petty issues and then take them back whenever they felt like it. So this was done for womens rights and so men dont take such rash decisions they are given 3 months to think because after that theres no going back and halala is like a punishment for them because they can only have their wives back after she has been with someone else

https://islamqa.info/en/answers/11798/how-should-a-man-take-back-his-wife-after-divorcing-her

If after the first or second talaq , the reconciliation period is passed the man will have to do nikah again with his ex wife. He will have to send a proposal, there will be mehr given. The ex wife's mahram will be involved. The ex wife will have the option to accept or reject the proposal.

Three talaqa is FINAL, nikah can only be done with proper halala that the second husband divorces her by his own will.

In the subcontinent people misunderstand that a man can give three talaq at once. That's wrong, no matter how many times he utter it at that moment, it is still counted as one.

He will have to wait for his wife's one monthly cycle to give her the next talaq without any intimacy because intimacy = he is taking her back, reconciliation.

Originally posted by: abyan62

https://islamqa.info/en/answers/11798/how-should-a-man-take-back-his-wife-after-divorcing-her

If after the first or second talaq , the reconciliation period is passed the man will have to do nikah again with his ex wife. He will have to send a proposal, there will be mehr given. The ex wife's mahram will be involved. The ex wife will have the option to accept or reject the proposal.

Right. My cousin divorced his first wife..they got back after a year. They divorced again and got back after few years. Then 3rd talaaq happened. And now they are happily married to other ppl.😃

Three talaqa is FINAL, nikah can only be done with proper halala that the second husband divorces her by his own will.

In the subcontinent people misunderstand that a man can give three talaq at once. That's wrong, no matter how many times he utter it at that moment, it is still counted as one.

He will have to wait for his wife's one monthly cycle to give her the next talaq without any intimacy because intimacy = he is taking her back, reconciliation.

In some mazhabs 3 talaaqs in one time are counted as 3. 😒 But new age schoolers and law in many countries count them as one. It is better for men to learn to say one talaaq only to avoid the confusion.😊

Originally posted by: abyan62

This is true but Islam put a limit that after three talaq the man can't take the woman back or remarry her without halala. This doesn't apply to first or second talaq

3 months means 3 talaaqas because it doesnt need to be said verbally

Originally posted by: heavenlybliss

3 months means 3 talaaqas because it doesnt need to be said verbally

Where did you get this info from? There's no connection by 3 months and 3 talaaqs. Both are different from each other.

Originally posted by: awida

Where did you get this info from? There's no connection by 3 months and 3 talaaqs. Both are different from each other.

i studied some islamic courses thats where i got it from 😂

but youre saying if someone doesnt utter divorce verbally yet signs the divorce papers and has no contact with his wife...they will still be married? It doesnt make sense to me. Its a very complicated topic.

Originally posted by: heavenlybliss

i studied some islamic courses thats where i got it from 😂

I think this is why ppl think that talaq should be given trice to be pakka. It is a wrong info , and I hope Pakistani dramas statrt teaching ppl that talaq should be given once only. And after the iddah finishes, they can get married again without halala.

but youre saying if someone doesnt utter divorce verbally yet signs the divorce papers and has no contact with his wife...they will still be married? It doesnt make sense to me. Its a very complicated topic.

No. I said that if he signed divorce pprs, so he gave her 1st talaq. She'll be divorced from him after iddah. Now if they want to get back they can , but they should get married again with a new nikah and haq meher. Halala isn't needed. Coz he didn't give her 3 talaqs.

Originally posted by: heavenlybliss

i studied some islamic courses thats where i got it from 😂

but youre saying if someone doesnt utter divorce verbally yet signs the divorce papers and has no contact with his wife...they will still be married? It doesnt make sense to me. Its a very complicated topic.

I think awida meant that if someone gives divorce in writing and doesn't have any contact, they are divorced. Not still married.

This is what I studied in my islamic diploma with ustazah iffat maqbool in nurul quran international institute. She follows the Quran and sunnah.

She directed us students towards www.islamqa.com for answers to question since she could only entertain a few questions at the end of the lesson.

Originally posted by: abyan62

She directed us students towards www.islamqa.com for answers to question since she could only entertain a few questions at the end of the lesson.

Allah bless her , and her students. 🤗 I am glad to know that there are ppl who follow Quran and Sunnah and not just follow what they were learned from society.

this is why i dont learn under Pakistani teachers...i studied under teachers from university of madinah :D