Mughals - JA(REAL) is not Fiction-Pt4 - Author/TM's note on Pg1 and 91 - Page 60

Originally posted by: history_geek

Adi,

Yes, it was this unique method of travelling...!..😊

@blue above
Before Aurangzeb, Akbar AGAIN re-introduced Jaziya in 1575, after repealing it in early 1560's...!.. This was for pressurizing ESPECIALLY Mewar ..!

And, then repealed it in 1580..!..😕..There is a farman dated 1579, to AGAIN repeal Jaziya..!

And, this policy is also clear from the imperial document he issued after conquest of Chittor, called Fathnama-i-Chittor , i.e., Book Of Conquest of Chittor .!.. Very bitter document...!...He DID use religious angle to achieve political objectives..😕

Originally posted by: Pals2411

Ok. That means it is time and again implemented for political reason.

Still I am a bit confused. Is jaziya and pilgrimage tax different?

Originally posted by: history_geek

Adi,

Yes, it was this unique method of travelling...!..😊

@blue above
Before Aurangzeb, Akbar AGAIN re-introduced Jaziya in 1575, after repealing it in early 1560's...!.. This was for pressurizing ESPECIALLY Mewar ..!

And, then repealed it in 1580..!..😕..There is a farman dated 1579, to AGAIN repeal Jaziya..!

And, this policy is also clear from the imperial document he issued after conquest of Chittor, called Fathnama-i-Chittor , i.e., Book Of Conquest of Chittor .!.. Very bitter document...!...He DID use religious angle to achieve political objectives..😕

Originally posted by: adianasr

Abhay, There is also info that Akbar sent at least 6 missions for friendly treaty with Mewar. And that the ppl of the area that came under the Sultanate were attacked when they would travel across Mewar territory or close to it.

Originally posted by: history_geek

Yes, he sent peace missionaries there.😊
But, regarding attack - What type of attacks.?😕
Elaborate.!.

Originally posted by: adianasr

These were supposedly after Chittor and hence the Mewar Ranas were now in the mountains so the attacks were more like guerilla attacks on travellers of Sultanate.

Originally posted by: Pals2411

Ok. That means it is time and again implemented for political reason.

Still I am a bit confused. Is jaziya and pilgrimage tax different?

Originally posted by: history_geek

Jaziya was NOT applied time and again, by Akbar.
It was AGAIN re-introduced in 1575 once, and then repealed later in 1580.

Jaziya - tax on Zimmi subjects / Non-Muslims ONLY.
Pilgrimage tax - another tax, collected from Hindu pilgrims, when they entered their religious sites.

Originally posted by: history_geek

AKBAR AND DYSLEXIA

Tamy, Gussa kyu hote ho..!!..😃

This 'dyslexia' is a "relative" concept, not "absolute", and, involves lot of things. I won't say Akbar to be a dyslexic. This question is highly debatable. I have read a lot, and concluded something as follows:

As per modern theories, a dyslexic person has many symptoms, like --
(more symptoms are there, no need to do PHD on this topic.😆)

1.
Attention Deficiency --> And, this DOES NOT fits in his personality.

2.
Poor memory --> Again, contradictory. Akbar could remember the event by heart..! (It's said..)

3.
Low Self-esteem --> Again, DOES NOt fits with Akbar's persona. NOT AT ALL.

4.
Panicking during disorder-->Again, against him. He was known for his well-calculated moves.

5.
Poor interest in Mathematics --> Now, for this i have a solid proof. Sheikh Faiz Mubarak translated a book in mathematics, called Lilavati, written in 12th century, in Persian, on Akbar's orders. Also, he was appointed Mathematics teacher for his son. Doesn't this say, despite not being able to learn, he knew the importance of Mathematics.?.

Finally, i gave these points to justify that, if a person can't read or write, then we CAN NOT term him to be a total dyslexic. There are many points REQUIRED to prove someone,dyslexic.😊
If BEING ILLITERATE is the "ONLY" definition for dyslexia, then ALL illiterates in the world are dyslexic.!. 😉😊