Originally posted by: vyapti
I have a question. When Yudhishthir lost Pandavas in dice game they became slaves. Then why Kauravas claimed Panchali to be a sex slave and not slave alone? What was the logic behind that. Did women slaves were by default sex slaves at that time?
Slaves could have been used for any purpose the masters felt good, forget having relations with them, they could be(and often were) even sent to the services (understand what kind of) of obedient servants of the master if they pleased the master (obviously after having been served by these slaves themselves)
Not sure if homo relations happened back then, but I think (no direct reference, completely my opinion) even the male slaves would have been subjected to assaults if their master was a bi/gay
They literally had no say in it
I don't know why these Hindus of today say that there was no slavery in ancient India and Dasa doesn't mean slave. I have been so many times been trolled by them to say that Dasa/Dasi mean slave, they are like no you don't know Sankrit, the origin of this word is completely different and isn't related to slave,
Maybe they had more rights than European or Middle Eastern slaves and maybe slavery in India was abolished earlier, but slavery definitely was there in ancient India