Hi,
I have posted here only a couple of times. I have a question. This is with reference to the divorce scene in today's episode.
Malik Khan called a maulana and a lengthy back and forth ensued between the parties concerned. The maulana clearly said that both parties should be ready to divorce - something akin to divorce by mutual consent.
Would it have been the same if the husband had opted for divorce? The maulana demanded to know why the wife wanted a divorce. If this is a law, then it should be equally applicable even if the husband is asking for the divorce. Right? And if such a law exists, then where does the three time utterance of talaq (which is extremely popular in films and TV) fit in?
This question is purely for the sake of information. I just want to know how it works. Please do not take the question out of context. Thank you.