... CGM under direct supervision ... but 'BHEJA'! - Page 3

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rinku4u thumbnail
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Posted: 14 years ago
#21

Originally posted by: jhum_86


ya rinku you are right the viewers who are aware of chanakya and cgm are not so illeterate....so they want to watch a historical show which tries to maintain its time...but this kinds of flaws are intollerable....😆




yupp Aru di ... coz ...this type of differences makes vast difference😊
Ritu278 thumbnail
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Posted: 14 years ago
#22
Agar hum sab milkar sagars ke Flaw Department me kaam kare to show ki TRP aur badegi....wat say?😉😉
Historylover thumbnail
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Posted: 14 years ago
#23

Originally posted by: jhum_86

really dhananand's acting was awesomme today.....but mura in dhananand's harem😲..there's no historical evidence abt this...and sorry to say today i was lil bit tired of those ragging.....and too much discussion on teerthyatra yojna.....


yes Yaar Acc. to some dant kathayein CGM was a child of Mura and Nand i.e. father of this evil Dhananand but it is said that such stories were made by CGM's enemies to derogate him there is no evidence that it is true but agar hum yeh baat sach bhi maane toh Mura Dhanand ki bhi mom hui ,applause to Sagar's unhone toh kahani ki achhi rail banai hai 😕 Mujhe toh Mura ke liye dar lag pata nahi bechaari k saath kya hoga ?😭 And yes ragging part is too much itni ragging toh Jagya ki bhi nahi hui thi BV mein (sorry for mentioning another shows name in this forum) but unhone bhi ek episode mein nipta diya tha BTW ragging ko Hindi mein Kya kehte hain ? Mujhe toh yeh bhi nahi pata ki Urdu mein kya kehte hain.
RoseFairy thumbnail
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Posted: 14 years ago
#24

Originally posted by: Historylover


yes Yaar Acc. to some dant kathayein CGM was a child of Mura and Nand i.e. father of this evil Dhananand but it is said that such stories were made by CGM's enemies to derogate him there is no evidence that it is true but agar hum yeh baat sach bhi maane toh Mura Dhanand ki bhi mom hui ,applause to Sagar's unhone toh kahani ki achhi rail banai hai 😕 Mujhe toh Mura ke liye dar lag pata nahi bechaari k saath kya hoga ?😭 And yes ragging part is too much itni ragging toh Jagya ki bhi nahi hui thi BV mein (sorry for mentioning another shows name in this forum) but unhone bhi ek episode mein nipta diya tha BTW ragging ko Hindi mein Kya kehte hain ? Mujhe toh yeh bhi nahi pata ki Urdu mein kya kehte hain.



you are right.....there is no evidence of cgm being nanda's son..its made by his enemies.because cgm was khatriya...and nandas were from loer caste...may be shudra..that's why they attacked the khatriyas.....but ye sagar wale kya karne wale hai yar???
rinku4u thumbnail
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Posted: 14 years ago
#25

Originally posted by: jhum_86



you are right.....there is no evidence of cgm being nanda's son..its made by his enemies.because cgm was khatriya...and nandas were from loer caste...may be shudra..that's why they attacked the khatriyas.....but ye sagar wale kya karne wale hai yar???



2300 yrs ago what happened no one knows .We rely on texts watever is deciphered.. CVs are trying to give a shape to the story. Regarding CGM's father's identity there are several explanations I think CVs are trying to cover all . The first & foremost sign of it is that peacock picture which was shown in the v first episode. But his father's identity is of less importance i guess as CGM started a dynasty .. in name of Maurya .😊😊😊😊😊😊 This may be the true example that a person makes his/her identity on its own 👏
tiny15 thumbnail
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Posted: 14 years ago
#26

Originally posted by: Ritu278

Too many urdu words😕 and the walls with the shlokas...at that time there was no Devnagri lipi(writing)....it was Brahmi lipi....the sanskrit shlokas, and vedas were not written....they were just learnt....🥱 and CGM's mom is alive coz when CGM defeats Dhananand he has to get back his mom na...thats why she is not dead😊...and who is the king with whom Chanakya was talking to about Akhand Bharat?

though i agree wid u that earlier sanskrit was only verbally taught but i think at that time it'd sum lipi.i m pasting here sum thing abt it from wikipedia & oder soureces
"vedas & sholkas were written in sanskrit in the mid 2 late 2nd millennium BC. from vedas 2 until Panini(4th century bce) development of sanskrit was there!!after this vedic sanskrit & panini's sanskrit r considered as difft dialects.
"These Vedas were passed on orally for many generations. When they were written down, they were first written in Vedic, an early form of Sanskrit. Then around 300 B.C. the Vedas were written down in the form we have them tod
ay!!

The Vedas was supposedly braught by the aryans and in the vedas says there was war between the the aryans and the natives of India, explain that. That is however not the main point of the thread.

The Vedas was written a lot later but if the vedas are oral tradition how can that be? India is one of the first countries to have a written language so how is it that the Vedas was written many thousands of years after it was passed on and such? That doesn't make sense. It seems logical the reason why the Vedas was not written down is because the aryans (who have no written system) passed it down orally and finally when they finally found that the dravidian's written language can be used to write it down. That makes the most sense. Please explain.

An interesting reply – Really throught provoking!!

The wonder is how could, those aryan rishis have transferred the vedas word of mouth, generation to generation. It is almost a super-human memory that they possesed.

rinku4u thumbnail
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Posted: 14 years ago
#27

Originally posted by: tiny15

though i agree wid u that earlier sanskrit was only verbally taught but i think at that time it'd sum lipi.i m pasting here sum thing abt it from wikipedia & oder soureces

"vedas & sholkas were written in sanskrit in the mid 2 late 2nd millennium BC. from vedas 2 until Panini(4th century bce) development of sanskrit was there!!after this vedic sanskrit & panini's sanskrit r considered as difft dialects.
"These Vedas were passed on orally for many generations. When they were written down, they were first written in Vedic, an early form of Sanskrit. Then around 300 B.C. the Vedas were written down in the form we have them tod
ay!!

The Vedas was supposedly braught by the aryans and in the vedas says there was war between the the aryans and the natives of India, explain that. That is however not the main point of the thread.

The Vedas was written a lot later but if the vedas are oral tradition how can that be? India is one of the first countries to have a written language so how is it that the Vedas was written many thousands of years after it was passed on and such? That doesn't make sense. It seems logical the reason why the Vedas was not written down is because the aryans (who have no written system) passed it down orally and finally when they finally found that the dravidian's written language can be used to write it down. That makes the most sense. Please explain.

An interesting reply ' Really throught provoking!!

The wonder is how could, those aryan rishis have transferred the vedas word of mouth, generation to generation. It is almost a super-human memory that they possesed.




but tin dear werent rhe vedas actually wriitten by the Aryans ,,,😊
tiny15 thumbnail
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Posted: 14 years ago
#28
@rinku yeah dear vedas were written by aryans!! but i didn't undestand why u aske dthis? means wat do u want 2 convey!!😊
rinku4u thumbnail
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Posted: 14 years ago
#29

Originally posted by: tiny15

@rinku yeah dear vedas were written by aryans!! but i didn't undestand why u aske dthis? means wat do u want 2 convey!!😊



no no ... i just asked for confirmation .... nothing else .. coz many do say Chanakya was of Dravidian origin . but i have a thot that only aryans were allowed to read the vedas .. rather .. aryan males .. women after a certain time were not allowed to .. especially after age of .. gargie , maitryee,😊
RoseFairy thumbnail
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Posted: 14 years ago
#30

Originally posted by: rinku4u



no no ... i just asked for confirmation .... nothing else .. coz many do say Chanakya was of Dravidian origin . but i have a thot that only aryans were allowed to read the vedas .. rather .. aryan males .. women after a certain time were not allowed to .. especially after age of .. gargie , maitryee,😊


chanakya was brahmin..he had purity in blood hw can he belong to dravidian origin???and vedas are the contribution aryans..but there was no culture of writing as aryan's were musafir first.but vedas were started to be written from 6th century b.c onwards..so during the time of cgm vedas were no more sruti

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