Originally posted by: tiny15
though i agree wid u that earlier sanskrit was only verbally taught but i think at that time it'd sum lipi.i m pasting here sum thing abt it from wikipedia & oder soureces
"vedas & sholkas were written in sanskrit in the mid 2 late 2nd millennium BC. from vedas 2 until Panini(4th century bce) development of sanskrit was there!!after this vedic sanskrit & panini's sanskrit r considered as difft dialects.
"These Vedas were passed on orally for many generations. When they were written down, they were first written in Vedic, an early form of Sanskrit. Then around 300 B.C. the Vedas were written down in the form we have them tod
ay!!
The Vedas was supposedly braught by the aryans and in the vedas says there was war between the the aryans and the natives of India, explain that. That is however not the main point of the thread.
The Vedas was written a lot later but if the vedas are oral tradition how can that be? India is one of the first countries to have a written language so how is it that the Vedas was written many thousands of years after it was passed on and such? That doesn't make sense. It seems logical the reason why the Vedas was not written down is because the aryans (who have no written system) passed it down orally and finally when they finally found that the dravidian's written language can be used to write it down. That makes the most sense. Please explain. |
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An interesting reply ' Really throught provoking!! | The wonder is how could, those aryan rishis have transferred the vedas word of mouth, generation to generation. It is almost a super-human memory that they possesed. |