Originally posted by: gangubai1
Actually Payal the panchayat was aware that Phooli is going under Naata and it was the Sarpanch at that time who told Phooli's father that he should consider the Naata since it was a good option for Phooli's future.
Secondly, Naata is a socially recognized practice in that area. There was no fraud in that case, since the MIL insisted that they wanted only a Naata and not a marriage. So Phooli can't claim that it was rape. Yes there is an absence of written agreement, but who is to prove or disprove a verbal agreement? Esp. since Phooli's father celebrated the Naata by inviting the entire village and all? Can he say that he was mislead.
A Naata is normally of one year's duration and that is approximately the time that Phooli has spent with her in-laws, again social sanction exists. Normally in a Naata the children borne during this period belong to the father, since most women are unwilling or incapable of taking care of the children. If the father doesn't accept the child then the child is usually sent to an orphanage. This I'm talking about the prevalent social practice.
Even Phooli claims her rights over the child, she would still have to look at Bharat's family to provide her financial assistance. Since she is a widow, she cannot give a legal father's name to the child, he'll grow up to be a bas***d. Coming from a poor destitute family she cannot assure that the child will have a good education, upbringing and future. Even if she goes to the court to demand her rights, the custody will be awarded to Bharat because he can give the child a legal status, financial support, and a bright future. Plus his wife is willing to accept the child, so Phooli can't even claim that the child will grow up without maternal care.