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Well most Indians do take a lot of rice especially those from the countryside.Originally posted by: ibnbatuta
Yes, I have also read about this. Amartya Sen apparently wrote that there was a famine in Bengal because Bengalis ate too much rice.
I wonder how he knew about this. 😆
Well most Indians do take a lot of rice especially those from the countryside.
But it seems that there was food but people had not money to buy them.
Originally posted by: K.Universe.
"Where is the famine" is a trick question. The correct answer is "in India". If 1/6 of the billion plus population is undernourished, if India is home to the largest undernourished and hungry population in the world and yet if there is sufficient food production that "surplus" is being exported out, then yes, by definition there is, even though technically there isn't. Go figure!
http://www.indiafoodbanking.org/hunger
Reason I brought up the current stats is to point out that government policies of the past few decades could very well be causing the hunger issue to persist coupled with other factors such as exports, inflation, droughts and more, and these factors could very well have existed even back in 1943 (as "refute" to the original claim)
Hope you follow.
P.S: US debt has as much to do with this subject as you have to do with Mensa so unless you want to troll in the topic that you yourself created, please stick to famine / hunger.
Why this urgency to bring pea-brained arguments to disprove something that the plundering country have hardly ever disputed themselves.