Section 497 of the IPC should be repealed. - Page 2

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373577 thumbnail
Posted: 10 years ago
#11

Originally posted by: krystal_watz


Nope, there it'd be considered an open marriage. (In case the husband consents)

Uh - that sounds more like pimping 😒
441597 thumbnail
Posted: 10 years ago
#12
Not pimping. Here the wife is having an affair out of her own will, and her husband has no problem with it. It can be the other way round as well.
373577 thumbnail
Posted: 10 years ago
#13

Originally posted by: krystal_watz

Not pimping. Here the wife is having an affair out of her own will, and her husband has no problem with it. It can be the other way round as well.

Actually the passage you quoted in the OP says nothing about a woman's consent but onle about the husband's. It seems to denote that a wife's consent is immaterial and it is only the husband's consent or lack of it that will decide if it is adultery or not.

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