Originally posted by: 4thPrincoholic
I suppose as long as they can prove they slept together while the guy in question has no intention of marrying or is already married and he that he lied for the sake of sleeping with the girl ... hence, no mutual consent! ... Assuming Ofc .. I don't know the details of the specific case you're speaking nor have I followed all the articles .. so not sure completely! ... But since his bailed wasn't approved, I reckon they were able to prove their physical relationship on deception of a kind!
Anyone know if this guy is already married or not?!
As per Wiki he is not married..
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