Originally posted by: aparnauma
How did Vedic people decide that Bharat includes land from to sea? And what sea was that? Was it Indian ocean or Arabian sea? The map clearly tells that regions where Vedic people livied and the extant of their land.
Amalgamation with indigenous people? Didn't Islamic invaders say the same thing? Imposition of their culture is what they did. If people felt that Vedic culture is part of their culture there would not have been a need for Dravidian movement. If the Vedic culture has been so great the lower strata would not have dumped it for a foreign religion. People would not have burnt Manusmritis.

The Dravidian movement is a very recent movement hardly 100-200 years old while the Vedic attire of South India is over 1500 years at the least.
Islamists never amalgamated with natives, they wanted everyone to forget their Gods and worship theirs, Aryans never did that.
The ocean was Indian ocean and it was very well mentioned and documented, how they did it?? Just the same way Greeks called the entire area Indoo without ever even stepping in here, and the mere fact that they called all as Bharat show that they never discriminated between the two.
This map is upto 500 BCE, while the time period I am saying is post that, there is still a 1000 years gap between 500 BCE and 500CE by when the entire area had become that of Vedics
Manusmriti is not the core of Vedic culture, it is a Smriti among many other (Parasara, Yagnavalkya etc.) the Smriti texts are never necessary to be followed. And about people leaving, it wasn't only the lower strata who left, many left for getting benefits from the ruling class and many stuck to
Aside I never even said that Vedic culture was the greatest of all, I just said that it was accepted by all across the country.
My question to you since the start was the same if the name given by Greeks (who were also from the same PIE group to which Aryans belonged) was acceptable, what was the issue with name from the people of same group who settled in here