Originally posted by: princessjojo
The writer most probably intended him to be a V 😂. Lots of reasons imo
1) he fell hard too hard too fast for Meerab to not be the first woman in his life. A ‘worldly’ man who has been there, done that would not be so susceptible to “nikah ki takat”
2) Haya says tum kaware mein kawari once before marriage and once after knowing MM sleep separately. Obviously talking about virginity
3) he says he can only love one woman in his lifetime. He talks about Ishq and Sufiana stuff. He doesn’t seem like a casual sex type of guy who has a one night stand or dates for the sake of dating
4) he’s way too much into izzat. He’d go ballistic if he knew Maryam, Haya or Meerab were having or had pre-marital sex. Would the writer have really intended a hypocritical male lead? Especially one she is crazy for? I doubt it (although one could argue his behavior toward Haya fits the definition of hypocritical). Meerab asks him shadi se pehle kya tha? Although it was in regards to Haya, his answer ‘Aisa waisa kuch nahi tha’ is definitive enough to include any female IMO
5) Muslim, supposedly upstanding family- guess it’s safe to assume they consider premarital sex sin and implement it with their actions. Ma begum harps about her tarbiyat of her kids and out of the 3 she has raised, we viewers have been shown only Murtasim is the ‘good’ one who supposedly follows all rules and does no wrong
In real life, would a feudal lord with unlimited money, power and good looks be a virgin? Most likely not
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