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Originally posted by: rithika2015
according what i know about islam marriage they say that a nikah is valid only when husband and wife indulge in intimate relation.
if u go by that ruksar and kabir never had any intimate relation. and i guess that is why ruksar was desperate to have her so called HAQ i felt. she even intended to disturb zabir's first night saying that their talaq will end only after their first night which she decided to spoil.now coming to ruksar and kabir's case. they dont have any relation as wife and husband and moreover kabir doesnt want any relation with her.according to hindu marriage law if a partner is not willing to have physical relation with the other then they can be divorced easily. so does this apply to islam marriage also?can anyone pls give info on this?why cant kabir use this clause and get talaq from ruksar??
Originally posted by: Houstonmom
Here it's a little tricky . Although kabeer and ruksaar never consummated the marriage they were alone in an intimate setting where things could have happened if they wanted to. For this reason ruksaar would have to have iddah. If they were married and never lived together they wouldn't have to have a iddah period and he wouldn't be able to revoke it . If he were to change his mind in that case he would have to perform a new nikah with new mahr.
But here the marriage itself is questionable. They have to have a judgment on what to do with it as ruksaar believes she is married and demands her rites while kabeer now says it's not valid. If it is a valid nikah he can't refuse her the rites unless he to get talaq he can't keep her this way.
Originally posted by: rithika2015
so unless kabir proves that nikah is not valid ruksar claim his right on kabir. thats gonna really be painful for zara.but here nikaah was done just to save her and he wud give talaq to her after saving her. so now he can give talaq to her right? so what is the issue.why cant he give talaq? even to give talaq does ruksar and kabir have to consummate their marriage?