Balloon Recalculation going ON! - Page 85

Originally posted by: sri3068

This is the method that has been taught to my son at school to decide the leap year.. 😊

and i came to know about the gergorian reform when i was in school.

But it looks like IF is adopting the prior to gregorian
reform method... 😃

interestingly if someone claimed that a murder occured on 7th October, 1582, he would be lying because no such date actually existed. (Oct 5 to Oct 14 1582 does not exist).

wow...that is an interesting fact...

[quote=mad-cap]

jasunap wrote: right maddy. divisible by 400. that is why 1500 is not a leap year

strictly speaking 1500 is a leap year. the gregorian reform occured in 1582, prior to which leap year calculation was based strictly on being divisible by 4. after 1582, the concept of century years were considerd.[/quote]

ok, here is the divisibility test of 4. if last two digits of any number is divisible by "4", the whole number is divisible by 4.. 😃

wait wait...did someone mention "method" and "IF" in one sentence????

There is never any "method" to madness 😆 😆

[quote=mad-cap]interestingly if someone claimed that a murder occured on 7th October, 1582, he would be lying because no such date actually existed. (Oct 5 to Oct 14 1582 does not exist).

[/quote]

i didnt understand this...can u explain plzz?

Originally posted by: krutilynn

wait wait...did someone mention "method" and "IF" in one sentence????

There is never any "method" to madness 😆 😆

there is always a method in madness, but never one in blind copy paste.

hi , how every thing is going on i mean answering section

Pam...when the adjustment was made for "divisible by 400" for century years, the people realized that they were ending up with an extra nine days to adjust for which 5th of October to 14th of October were removed from one year (1582)and this brought about the time adjustment in the Gregorian calendar...