Originally posted by: BlueWaters20
You need to look into the rules around multiple marriages. Everything you have written so far is completely false, and misinforming people about religious issues is a sin. That’s all I will say on this, no point in arguing with someone hellbent on pushing false information.
There is difference between what is permissible in religion vs what is legally permitted.
From a strictly religious point of view, first wife consent is not required. But in Pakistan, from a legal point of view, it is required.
Islamic jurisprudence and Islamic legal systems have certain flexibility in application of Islamic injunctions. They cannot make haram halal but within halal, there is room to set different limits. For instance:
- From a strictly religious point of view, a girl can get married once she is baaligh (has had her period) but both Saudi Arabia and Pakistan have instituted minimum ages of marriage. In Sindh Pakistan, it is 18 years and in other provinces, it is 16.
- Similarly, from a strictly religious point of view, slavery is permitted (with certain parameters) but all Islamic governments have abolished slavery for decades.
- Take the case of divorce. In the time of Prophet and 1st caliph, 3 talaks in one sitting constituted one talak only. But in time of 2nd caliph, he changed it that 3 talaks even in one sitting is 3 talaks because he thought people were taking divorce too lightly.
Further, there is also difference across different schools of thought on some issues (shafi vs hanfi vs maliki vs salafi). some things are black and white and there is consensus across all schools but this is not so on all issues. So even Islamic jurisprudence, there is room for different interpretations on issues on which explicit injunctions are not given. Instead of calling people sinner this and sinner that, it is important to understand what is the provenance and historicity of the argument you are making.
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