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there was neither any Bharat varsha at that time.đ..historians called India as part of Persian empire.Originally posted by: deepikagupta9
Mostly every article mention poras was king of sindh & punjab. Sorry 2 say but there was no punjabi culture or caste during poras times & he was not punjabi. The place & area he ruled was known as pourav rashtra not punjab in his time
Thnks 4 d info
Originally posted by: luckySnow
there was neither any Bharat varsha at that time.đ..historians called India as part of Persian empire.
Originally posted by: deepikagupta9
Darius 1 captured some parts of india near Indus river which got released after Darius 3 death , but still bharat was not d part of Persia . Bharat was ancient times known as sone ki chiriya. Persia & bharat had cordial & friendly relationship.if i m right it was alexender's teacher Aristotle who gave him inf o about bharat
Alexander never came to win India as shown in this detail he wasn't obsessed with India ...he wanted to win all that came in his way đ and yes historians give Indus valley in Persian empire and yes there wasn't any term Bharat varsha ...if there was any Bharat varsha then term should have come in Greek Persian Russian or Mesopotamia sources but no ...only Indus appears in these sources txzOriginally posted by: FlauntPessimism
Bharat Varsha was a part of Persian Empire??? Like really so, Alexander traveled so long to win a part of the Persian empire?đ Which historian made this absurd assumption, please ask him/her to study basic historyThe term Bharat Varsha and Aryavarta is as old as a least 1000 BC (even taking the most recent assumption) and here we are around 323 BCThis was the time there were multiple kingdoms in India (known as 16 Janpads of Bharat Varsha/Aryavarta) with Magadh eventually taking the prominence (even that happened around 500BC) and Chanakya was trying make a central force out of all the kingdoms of BharatVarsha
Aristotle told him about Indus civilization not of Bharat read Aristotle đOriginally posted by: FlauntPessimism
Exactly there was a small part of Bharat which was under foreign attack but the entire Bharat a Persian kingdom is heights of an illusionAlexander thought that India was the end of the world (same was taught by Aristotle) and so wanted to win India and fulfill his dreams of world win
Originally posted by: luckySnow
Alexander never came to win India as shown in this detail he wasn't obsessed with India ...he wanted to win all that came in his way đ and yes historians give Indus valley in Persian empire and yes there wasn't any term Bharat varsha ...if there was any Bharat varsha then term should have come in Greek Persian Russian or Mesopotamia sources but no ...only Indus appears in these sources txz
Originally posted by: luckySnow
Aristotle told him about Indus civilization not of Bharat read Aristotle đ