luckySnow thumbnail
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Posted: 7 years ago
#1
Not many of you know that Porus was a Punjabi and was 7 fee😊t tall...there are several Punjabi folklores about him

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Fruitcustard_9 thumbnail
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Posted: 7 years ago
#2
Mostly every article mention poras was king of sindh & punjab. Sorry 2 say but there was no punjabi culture or caste during poras times & he was not punjabi. The place & area he ruled was known as pourav rashtra not punjab in his time
Thnks 4 d info
Edited by deepikagupta9 - 7 years ago
luckySnow thumbnail
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Posted: 7 years ago
#3

Originally posted by: deepikagupta9

Mostly every article mention poras was king of sindh & punjab. Sorry 2 say but there was no punjabi culture or caste during poras times & he was not punjabi. The place & area he ruled was known as pourav rashtra not punjab in his time

Thnks 4 d info

there was neither any Bharat varsha at that time.😉..historians called India as part of Persian empire.
FlauntPessimism thumbnail
Posted: 7 years ago
#4

Originally posted by: luckySnow

there was neither any Bharat varsha at that time.😉..historians called India as part of Persian empire.


Bharat Varsha was a part of Persian Empire??? Like really so, Alexander traveled so long to win a part of the Persian empire?😆 Which historian made this absurd assumption, please ask him/her to study basic history

The term Bharat Varsha and Aryavarta is as old as a least 1000 BC (even taking the most recent assumption) and here we are around 323 BC

This was the time there were multiple kingdoms in India (known as 16 Janpads of Bharat Varsha/Aryavarta) with Magadh eventually taking the prominence (even that happened around 500BC) and Chanakya was trying make a central force out of all the kingdoms of BharatVarsha

Fruitcustard_9 thumbnail
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Posted: 7 years ago
#5
Darius 1 captured some parts of india near Indus river which got released after Darius 3 death , but still bharat was not d part of Persia . Bharat was ancient times known as sone ki chiriya. Persia & bharat had cordial & friendly relationship.if i m right it was alexender's teacher Aristotle who gave him inf o about bharat
Edited by deepikagupta9 - 7 years ago
FlauntPessimism thumbnail
Posted: 7 years ago
#6

Originally posted by: deepikagupta9

Darius 1 captured some parts of india near Indus river which got released after Darius 3 death , but still bharat was not d part of Persia . Bharat was ancient times known as sone ki chiriya. Persia & bharat had cordial & friendly relationship.if i m right it was alexender's teacher Aristotle who gave him inf o about bharat


Exactly there was a small part of Bharat which was under foreign attack but the entire Bharat a Persian kingdom is heights of an illusion

Alexander thought that India was the end of the world (same was taught by Aristotle) and so wanted to win India and fulfill his dreams of world win

luckySnow thumbnail
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Posted: 7 years ago
#7

Originally posted by: FlauntPessimism


Bharat Varsha was a part of Persian Empire??? Like really so, Alexander traveled so long to win a part of the Persian empire?😆 Which historian made this absurd assumption, please ask him/her to study basic history


The term Bharat Varsha and Aryavarta is as old as a least 1000 BC (even taking the most recent assumption) and here we are around 323 BC

This was the time there were multiple kingdoms in India (known as 16 Janpads of Bharat Varsha/Aryavarta) with Magadh eventually taking the prominence (even that happened around 500BC) and Chanakya was trying make a central force out of all the kingdoms of BharatVarsha

Alexander never came to win India as shown in this detail he wasn't obsessed with India ...he wanted to win all that came in his way 😛 and yes historians give Indus valley in Persian empire and yes there wasn't any term Bharat varsha ...if there was any Bharat varsha then term should have come in Greek Persian Russian or Mesopotamia sources but no ...only Indus appears in these sources txz
luckySnow thumbnail
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Posted: 7 years ago
#8

Originally posted by: FlauntPessimism


Exactly there was a small part of Bharat which was under foreign attack but the entire Bharat a Persian kingdom is heights of an illusion

Alexander thought that India was the end of the world (same was taught by Aristotle) and so wanted to win India and fulfill his dreams of world win

Aristotle told him about Indus civilization not of Bharat read Aristotle 😛
FlauntPessimism thumbnail
Posted: 7 years ago
#9

Originally posted by: luckySnow

Alexander never came to win India as shown in this detail he wasn't obsessed with India ...he wanted to win all that came in his way 😛 and yes historians give Indus valley in Persian empire and yes there wasn't any term Bharat varsha ...if there was any Bharat varsha then term should have come in Greek Persian Russian or Mesopotamia sources but no ...only Indus appears in these sources txz


Oh my God, how much ignorant you could be😆😆

First of all Indus Valley was way back in 1500 BC and we are here talking about 323 BC. And none of the historian place Indus Valley under Persian empire, (as I told please ask your so called historian who said this to go and take basic history lessons)

Secondly its a simple difference in language that the term Bharat Varsh doesnt come in Greek Persian texts, while the Persians, Mesopotamia called this land as Hindustan (coming from the area near Sindhu river) and Greeks called it as India (or the land near Indus river), its just like saying Greece never existed since Indian texts don't mention about it. The Indians mention Greece as Yavan. The Indians called themselves Bharatvasis while Greeks called them Indians and Persians Hindustanis, similarly Indians called Greeks as Yavan while they themselves called themselves as Greeks. Similarly Greeks called Persians as Persians while Indians called them Farasis

Different people name same place differently

About Alexander, I am not even going by this show, we all know its huge distortion just do a small study, he always wanted to win India, which he felt was the end of his campaign as his teacher Aristotle told that India was the end of the world he has to win, he definitely was not obsessed by India but he definitely aimed at winning Bharat which he and his country men called India
FlauntPessimism thumbnail
Posted: 7 years ago
#10

Originally posted by: luckySnow

Aristotle told him about Indus civilization not of Bharat read Aristotle 😛


Aristole told him about Indus Valley Civilization which ended around 1500 BC at 350 BC (over 100 years later)

I seriously pity your history teacher now😭😭😭

Anyhow we have studied from better sources than yours and we know he said India (read Arian too he too specifically mentions India not Indus Valley) and India and Bharat is the same

And about Indus Valley being Persian I have not come across a single historian who said anything even near to it. Indus Valley Civilization was completely an Indian civilization and the ancient India includes the land which has been occupied by Pakistan now. If you have any link please share that. The Persians had won a small part near Indus valley in around 500 BC but the gained independence and retained its identity as part of Bharat within a few years from this. By around 400 BC it was very much a part of Bharat varsh/Aryavarta/India/Hindustan

By the way as per your inputs Bhart was part of Persian empire and Alexanded had defeated Persian king Darius III so why didnt India come under Faras? Why did he have to fight with Parvatak and later challenge other kingdoms which he and his army decided not too???


I thought this show is the epitome of historical distortion but you exceed over that
Edited by FlauntPessimism - 7 years ago

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