I cannot understand one thing...the rule was formed only today and how could it affect the happenings of past. jalal-ruq married a long time before when there was no rule of child marriage. Jalal has made the rule only today. If he happens to marry a child in the future Adham can question it.
How could Adham que a past action?????
if he wants justice for that...will he go to all the kings under their rule, who were married when they were a child and ask them to get divorce????
what nonsense yar???...so confusing
I dont know whether i am correct or not...guys say something