Originally posted by: harshdb
this is true in Arabic countries but I don't think it is allowed in India
Some things to clear up:
1) It is allowed in India, as one of the posters replied. India has allowances for people from other religions, such as Muslims. This is why Dharmendra and Hema Malini "converted" to Islam so Dharmendra could marry Hema as his second wife, since his first wife was unwilling to divorce him.
2) PLEASE PLEASE PLEASE, I am begging you, please do not say that "if one has a child, he has to make sure the other one too has one" even if she can/can't.
While it is true you are supposed to NOT differentiate between your wives, its only in terms of economic means!!!!! Meaning, if you get one wife a 3 story house, you have to buy the other one too...you can't keep one in a hut and another in a mansion... (however, if one of the wives WANTS to live in a smaller house out of her own choice, then that is a different story).
This principle does NOT, I repeat NOT apply to children NOR does it apply to love. If the husband in his heart feels more love to one wife than the other, its kind of like how parents or children feel more love to one child or one parent as opposed to the other. It's natural, you can't control your heart. HOWEVER, this should not manifest itself into the husband spending unfair amounts of time or giving an unfair/more gifts to one wife over the other.
The same idea applies to children. If one wife has a child it does NOT mean the other woman deserves a child and should be impregnated (even if she can give birth). Neither men nor women can't possibly "make sure" they have children, even if they are biologically able to.
Please, I beg of you, the principle of equality in Muslim polygamous marriages does not translate into equal amounts of children, regardless of biological ability.
I think I explained this in the beginning of the show on another post, but its been a while.
Just a friendly reminder.
If anyone wants references and sound sources, hit me up :)