Originally posted by: Cupcake4GHT
i don't know the law in india , but if a man has not been with his wife over ten years or so then the marriage is annulled as per law in the uk and i think this is the same with ks situation
in india this does not happen ...u have to get a divorce decree from the court , yes seperation for along duration of time can be grounds for divorce ...but sometimes one party may not agree to it ...then it becomes a really long drawn battle .... and either of the party cannot marry till the formal divorce does not happen...
unless the wife is guilty of mental and/or physical cruelty , usually she is entitled to alimony .... and a husband should pay it ...( ofcourse the financial situation of both is taken into consideration) but one can be in a lot of trouble if it is proven that underhand means were uses to avoid paying alimony.....
like anjana said there is still ambiguity , whether they were negotiating on the alimony , which would mean the divorce is not final or whether the court had decreed that studio shuld be given to the wife, which wud mean the divorce is final ...not sure ....
Edited by tibs09 - 16 years ago