Originally posted by: anu41982
If Sadaf marry him (contract or other wise) at this point, fall in love with him, then why would they go for separation? Because, the contract comes with an expiration?
If that is the case, Bilal is getting Ammar and Sadaf married after the end of their contract marriage? But then how does the 'shaadi sahi hua hain, pyaar galat' dialogue come to the play? She went on to marry Ammar, because she has fallen in love with him (because, she clearly is happy in her wedding functions!)?
Just a wild thought, but it seems like Sadaf is offering something else in exchange of money, not a 'marriage' of any type. May be acchi ladikiya gyaan is because of that and because of her pleading he agrees to whatever that is - the gunah, consensual relationship, I suppose! And that is where the 'nafrat' part coming from.
I also cannot seem to put that dialogue from Sadaf to Ammar - 'It is absolutely over!' (where she almost going to hit him) into that 'contact marriage' scenario. It has to mean that they had something to be over, no?
I am definitely going to loose my sleep over this!!!